Tech Arsenal 1/Tech Arsenal (Arsenal Computer).ISO/tek-20/tech.new

Text File | 1993-07-08 | 77KB | 2,545 lines

                             QUESTION POOL
                       Amateur Radio Examination
               Element 3A (Technician Class) Final Version
                            as released by
                         Question Pool Committee
                          National Conference of
                      Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
                             December 1, 1992

SUBELEMENT T1  COMMISSION'S RULES  [5 exam questions - 5 groups]

T1A  Station control, frequency privileges authorized to the
Technician-class control operator, term of licenses, grace
periods and modifications of licenses.

T1A01 (D) [97.3a12]
What is the control point of an amateur station?
A.  The on/off switch of the transmitter
B.  The input/output port of a packet controller
C.  The variable frequency oscillator of a transmitter
D.  The location at which the control operator function is
performed

T1A02 (B) [97.3a12]
What is the term for the location at which the control operator
function is performed?
A.  The operating desk
B.  The control point
C.  The station location
D.  The manual control location

T1A03 (A) [97.19a/b]
What must you do to renew or change your operator/primary station
license?
A.  Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in
Gettysburg, PA
B.  Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the nearest FCC
field office
C.  Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in
Washington, DC
D.  An amateur license never needs changing or renewing

T1A04 (A) [97.19c]
What is the "grace period" during which the FCC will renew an
expired 10-year license?
A.  2 years
B.  5 years
C.  10 years
D.  There is no grace period

T1A05 (C) [97.301/305e]
Which of the following frequencies may a Technician operator who
has passed a Morse code test use?
A.  7.1 - 7.2 MHz
B.  14.1 - 14.2 MHz
C.  21.1 - 21.2 MHz
D.  28.1 - 29.2 MHz

T1A06 (C) [97.301a]
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 52.525 MHz?
A.  Extra, Advanced only
B.  Extra, Advanced, General only
C.  Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
D.  Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice

T1A07 (B) [97.301a]
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 146.52 MHz?
A.  Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
B.  Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
C.  Extra, Advanced, General only
D.  Extra, Advanced only

T1A08 (A) [97.301a]
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 223.50 MHz?
A.  Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
B.  Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
C.  Extra, Advanced, General only
D.  Extra, Advanced only

T1A09 (B) [97.301a]
Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 446.0 MHz?
A.  Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
B.  Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
C.  Extra, Advanced, General only
D.  Extra, Advanced only

T1A10 (D) [97.301e]
In addition to passing the Technician written examination
(Elements 2 and 3A), what must you do before you are allowed to
use amateur frequencies below 30 MHz?
A.  Nothing special is needed; all Technicians may use the HF
bands at any time
B.  You must notify the FCC that you intend to operate on the HF
bands
C.  You must attend a class to learn about HF communications
D.  You must pass a Morse code test (either Element 1A, 1B or 1C)

T1A11 (C) [97.301e]
If you are a Technician licensee, what must you have to prove
that you are authorized to use the Novice amateur frequencies
below 30 MHz?
A.  A certificate from the FCC showing that you have notified
them that you will be using the HF bands
B.  A certificate from an instructor showing that you have
attended a class in HF communications
C.  Written proof of having passed a Morse code test
D.  No special proof is required before using the HF bands

T1B  Emission privileges for Technician-class control operator,
frequency selection and sharing, transmitter power.

T1B01 (C) [97.3b6]
At what point in your station is transceiver power measured?
A.  At the power supply terminals inside the transmitter or
amplifier
B.  At the final amplifier input terminals inside the transmitter
or amplifier
C.  At the antenna terminals of the transmitter or amplifier
D.  On the antenna itself, after the feed line

T1B02 (D) [97.3b6]
What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna
transmission line during one RF cycle at the crest of the
modulation envelope?
A.  Peak transmitter power
B.  Peak output power
C.  Average radio-frequency power
D.  Peak envelope power

T1B03 (B) [97.203c]
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur
station in beacon operation?
A.  10 watts PEP output
B.  100 watts PEP output
C.  500 watts PEP output
D.  1500 watts PEP output

T1B04 (C) [97.303]
If the FCC rules say that the amateur service is a secondary user
of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what
does this mean?
A.  Nothing special; all users of a frequency band have equal
rights to operate
B.  Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency band during
emergencies
C.  Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they
do not cause harmful interference to primary users
D.  Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any
interference caused by primary users

T1B05 (D) [97.303]
If you are using a frequency within a band assigned to the
amateur service on a secondary basis, and a station assigned to
the primary service on that band causes interference, what action
should you take?
A.  Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the
interference
B.  Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the
interference
C.  Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the
interference
D.  Change frequencies; you may be causing harmful interference
to the other station, in violation of FCC rules

T1B06 (C) [97.101b]
What rule applies if two amateur stations want to use the same
frequency?
A.  The station operator with a lesser class of license must
yield the frequency to a higher-class licensee
B.  The station operator with a lower power output must yield the
frequency to the station with a higher power output
C.  Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the
frequency
D.  Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the
frequency to stations in ITU Region 2

T1B07 (A) [97.305a]
What emission type may always be used for station identification,
regardless of the transmitting frequency?
A.  CW
B.  RTTY
C.  MCW
D.  Phone

T1B08 (B) [97.305c]
On what frequencies within the 6-meter band may phone emissions
be transmitted?
A.  50.0 - 54.0 MHz only
B.  50.1 - 54.0 MHz only
C.  51.0 - 54.0 MHz only
D.  52.0 - 54.0 MHz only

T1B09 (A) [97.305c]
On what frequencies within the 2-meter band may image emissions
be transmitted?
A.  144.1 - 148.0 MHz only
B.  146.0 - 148.0 MHz only
C.  144.0 - 148.0 MHz only
D.  146.0 - 147.0 MHz only

T1B10 (D) [97.313b]
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur
station on 146.52 MHz?
A.  200 watts PEP output
B.  500 watts ERP
C.  1000 watts DC input
D.  1500 watts PEP output

T1B11 (A) [97.209b2]
Which band may NOT be used by Earth stations for satellite
communications?
A.  6 meters
B.  2 meters
C.  70 centimeters
D.  23 centimeters

T1C  Digital communications, station identification, ID with
CSCE.

T1C01 (A) [97.119e1]
If you are a Novice licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for Technician privileges, how
do you identify your station when transmitting on 146.34 MHz?
A.  You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word
that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "KT"
B.  You may not operate on 146.34 until your new license arrives
C.  No special form of identification is needed
D.  You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
examination where you obtained the CSCE

T1C02 (C) [97.307f3/4]
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions below 50 MHz?
A.  0.1 kHz
B.  0.5 kHz
C.  1 kHz
D.  5 kHz

T1C03 (D) [97.307]
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions above 50 MHz?
A.  0.1 kHz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
B.  0.5 kHz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
C.  5 kHz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
D.  The FCC rules do not specify a maximum frequency shift above
50 MHz

T1C04 (B) [97.307f4]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet
transmissions on the 10-meter band?
A.  300 bauds
B.  1200 bauds
C.  19.6 kilobauds
D.  56 kilobauds

T1C05 (C) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet
transmissions on the 2-meter band?
A.  300 bauds
B.  1200 bauds
C.  19.6 kilobauds
D.  56 kilobauds

T1C06 (C) [97.307f4]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions between 28 and 50 MHz?
A.  56 kilobauds
B.  19.6 kilobauds
C.  1200 bauds
D.  300 bauds

T1C07 (B) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions between 50 and 222 MHz?
A.  56 kilobauds
B.  19.6 kilobauds
C.  1200 bauds
D.  300 bauds

T1C08 (A) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of RTTY, data or
multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code within
the frequency range of 50 to 222 MHz?
A.  20 kHz
B.  50 kHz
C.  The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-
sideband phone emission
D.  The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW
emission

T1C09 (D) [97.307f6]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions above 222 MHz?
A.  300 bauds
B.  1200 bauds
C.  19.6 kilobauds
D.  56 kilobauds

T1C10 (B) [97.307f6]
What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of RTTY, data or
multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code within
the frequency range of 222 to 450 MHz?
A.  50 kHz
B.  100 kHz
C.  150 kHz
D.  200 kHz

T1C11 (C) [97.307f6]
What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of RTTY, data or
multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code within
the 70-cm amateur band?
A.  300 kHz
B.  200 kHz
C.  100 kHz
D.  50 kHz

T1D  Correct language, Phonetics, Beacons and Radio Control of
model craft and vehicles.

T1D01 (A) [97.3a9]
What is an amateur station called which transmits communications
for the purpose of observation of propagation and reception?
A.  A beacon
B.  A repeater
C.  An auxiliary station
D.  A radio control station

T1D02 (B) [97.119b1]
What is the fastest code speed a repeater may use for automatic
identification?
A.  13 words per minute
B.  20 words per minute
C.  25 words per minute
D.  There is no limitation

T1D03 (C) [97.119b2]
If you are using a language besides English to make a contact,
what language must you use when identifying your station?
A.  The language being used for the contact
B.  The language being used for the contact, providing the US has
a third-party communications agreement with that country
C.  English
D.  Any language of a country which is a member of the
International Telecommunication Union

T1D04 (C) [97.119b2]
What do the FCC rules suggest you use as an aid for correct
station identification when using phone?
A.  A speech compressor
B.  Q signals
C.  A phonetic alphabet
D.  Unique words of your choice

T1D05 (B) [97.203a]
What minimum class of amateur license must you hold to operate a
beacon station?
A.  Novice
B.  Technician
C.  General
D.  Amateur Extra

T1D06 (A) [97.205c]
If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another repeater
and a frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of one
station only, who is responsible for resolving the interference?
A.  The licensee of the unrecommended repeater
B.  Both repeater licensees
C.  The licensee of the recommended repeater
D.  The frequency coordinator

T1D07 (D) [97.205c]
If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur
repeater and a frequency coordinator has recommended the
operation of both stations, who is responsible for resolving the
interference?
A.  The licensee of the repeater which has been recommended for
the longest period of time
B.  The licensee of the repeater which has been recommended the
most recently
C.  The frequency coordinator
D.  Both repeater licensees

T1D08 (A) [97.205c]
If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another repeater
and a frequency coordinator has NOT recommended either station,
who is primarily responsible for resolving the interference?
A.  Both repeater licensees
B.  The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation for
the longest period of time
C.  The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation for
the shortest period of time
D.  The frequency coordinator

T1D09 (C) [97.215a]
What minimum information must be on a label affixed to a
transmitter used for telecommand (control) of model craft?
A.  Station call sign
B.  Station call sign and the station licensee's name
C.  Station call sign and the station licensee's name and address
D.  Station call sign and the station licensee's class of license

T1D10 (D) [97.215a]
What are the station identification requirements for an amateur
transmitter used for telecommand (control) of model craft?
A.  Once every ten minutes
B.  Once every ten minutes, and at the beginning and end of each
transmission
C.  At the beginning and end of each transmission
D.  Station identification is not required if the transmitter is
labeled with the station licensee's name, address and call sign

T1D11 (B) [97.215c]
What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station is
allowed when used for telecommand (control) of model craft?
A.  One milliwatt
B.  One watt
C.  Two watts
D.  Three watts

T1E  Emergency communications; broadcasting; permissible one-way,
satellite and third-party communication; indecent and profane
language.

T1E01 (A) [97.3a10]
What is meant by the term broadcasting?
A.  Transmissions intended for reception by the general public,
either direct or relayed
B.  Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals from
non-amateur stations
C.  One-way radio communications, regardless of purpose or
content
D.  One-way or two-way radio communications between two or more
stations

T1E02 (B) [97.3a10]
Which of the following one-way communications may not be
transmitted in the amateur service?
A.  Telecommands to model craft
B.  Broadcasts intended for the general public
C.  Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station
D.  Morse code practice

T1E03 (D) [97.113b]
What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by
an amateur station?
A.  Any amount agreed upon in advance
B.  Donation of equipment repairs
C.  Donation of amateur equipment
D.  No payment of any kind is allowed

T1E04 (B) [97.113d]
When may you send obscene words from your amateur station?
A.  Only when they do not cause interference to other
communications
B.  Never; obscene words are prohibited in amateur transmissions
C.  Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater
D.  Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that
they should not be used on the air

T1E05 (D) [97.113d]
When may you send indecent words from your amateur station?
A.  Only when they do not cause interference to other
communications
B.  Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater
C.  Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that
they should not be used on the air
D.  Never; indecent words are prohibited in amateur transmissions

T1E06 (C) [97.113d]
When may you send profane words from your amateur station?
A.  Only when they do not cause interference to other
communications
B.  Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater
C.  Never; profane words are prohibited in amateur transmissions
D.  Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that
they should not be used on the air

T1E07 (C) [97.113e]
If you wanted to use your amateur station to retransmit
communications between a space shuttle and its associated Earth
stations, what agency must first give its approval?
A.  The FCC in Washington, DC
B.  The office of your local FCC Engineer In Charge (EIC)
C.  The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
D.  The Department of Defense

T1E08 (D) [97.115a2]
When are third-party messages allowed to be sent to a foreign
country?
A.  When sent by agreement of both control operators
B.  When the third party speaks to a relative
C.  They are not allowed under any circumstances
D.  When the US has a third-party agreement with the foreign
country or the third party is qualified to be a control operator

T1E09 (A) [97.115b1]
If you let an unlicensed third party use your amateur station,
what must you do at your station's control point?
A.  You must continuously monitor and supervise the third-party's
participation
B.  You must monitor and supervise the communication only if
contacts are made in countries which have no third-party
communications agreement with the US
C.  You must monitor and supervise the communication only if
contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz
D.  You must key the transmitter and make the station
identification

T1E10 (A) [97.401a]
If a disaster disrupts normal communication systems in an area
where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC, what kinds of
transmissions may stations make?
A.  Those which are necessary to meet essential communication
needs and facilitate relief actions
B.  Those which allow a commercial business to continue to
operate in the affected area
C.  Those for which material compensation has been paid to the
amateur operator for delivery into the affected area
D.  Those which are to be used for program production or
newsgathering for broadcasting purposes

T1E11 (C) [97.401c]
What information is included in an FCC declaration of a temporary
state of communication emergency?
A.  A list of organizations authorized to use radio
communications in the affected area
B.  A list of amateur frequency bands to be used in the affected
area
C.  Any special conditions and special rules to be observed
during the emergency
D.  An operating schedule for authorized amateur emergency
stations

SUBELEMENT T2  OPERATING PROCEDURES  [3 exam questions - 3
groups]

T2A  Repeater operation, courteous operation.

T2A01 (B)
How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the
station's call sign?
A.  Say "break, break 79," then say the station's call sign
B.  Say the station's call sign, then identify your own station
C.  Say "CQ" three times, then say the station's call sign
D.  Wait for the station to call "CQ," then answer it

T2A02 (C)
Why should you pause briefly between transmissions when using a
repeater?
A.  To check the SWR of the repeater
B.  To reach for pencil and paper for third-party communications
C.  To listen for anyone wanting to break in
D.  To dial up the repeater's autopatch

T2A03 (A)
Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater?
A.  A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency
from using the repeater
B.  To see if the receiving station operator is still awake
C.  To give any listening non-hams a chance to respond
D.  To keep long-distance charges down

T2A04 (D)
What is the proper way to break into a conversation on a
repeater?
A.  Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the
desired party
B.  Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join the
conversation
C.  Turn on an amplifier and override whoever is talking
D.  Say your call sign during a break between transmissions

T2A05 (B)
What is the purpose of repeater operation?
A.  To cut your power bill by using someone else's higher power
system
B.  To help mobile and low-power stations extend their usable
range
C.  To transmit signals for observing propagation and reception
D.  To make calls to stores more than 50 miles away

T2A06 (B)
What causes a repeater to "time out"?
A.  The repeater's battery supply runs out
B.  Someone's transmission goes on longer than the repeater
allows
C.  The repeater gets too hot and stops transmitting until its
circuitry cools off
D.  Something is wrong with the repeater

T2A07 (D)
During commuting rush hours, which type of repeater operation
should be discouraged?
A.  Mobile stations
B.  Low-power stations
C.  Highway traffic information nets
D.  Third-party communications nets

T2A08 (B)
What is a courtesy tone (used in repeater operations)?
A.  A sound used to identify the repeater
B.  A sound used to indicate when a transmission is complete
C.  A sound used to indicate that a message is waiting for
someone
D.  A sound used to activate a receiver in case of severe weather

T2A09 (A)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal is full quieting..."?
A.  Your signal is strong enough to overcome all receiver noise
B.  Your signal has no spurious sounds
C.  Your signal is not strong enough to be received
D.  Your signal is being received, but no audio is being heard

T2A10 (C)
How should you give a signal report over a repeater?
A.  Say what your receiver's S-meter reads
B.  Always say: "Your signal report is five five..."
C.  Say the amount of signal quieting into the repeater
D.  Try to imitate the sound quality you are receiving

T2A11 (A)
What is a repeater called which is available for anyone to use?
A.  An open repeater
B.  A closed repeater
C.  An autopatch repeater
D.  A private repeater

T2A12 (A)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters
in the 2-meter band?
A.  600 kHz
B.  1.0 MHz
C.  1.6 MHz
D.  5.0 MHz

T2A13 (C)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters
in the 1.25-meter band?
A.  600 kHz
B.  1.0 MHz
C.  1.6 MHz
D.  5.0 MHz

T2A14  (D)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters
in the 70-centimeter band?
A.  600 kHz
B.  1.0 MHz
C.  1.6 MHz
D.  5.0 MHz

T2A15  (A)
Why should local amateur communications use VHF and UHF
frequencies instead of HF frequencies?
A.  To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance
communication
B.  Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF
C.  Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally
D.  Because signals are louder on VHF and UHF frequencies

T2A16  (A)
How might you join a closed repeater system?
A.  Contact the control operator and ask to join
B.  Use the repeater until told not to
C.  Use simplex on the repeater input until told not to
D.  Write the FCC and report the closed condition

T2A17 (B)
How can on-the-air interference be minimized during a lengthy
transmitter testing or loading-up procedure?
A.  Choose an unoccupied frequency
B.  Use a dummy load
C.  Use a non-resonant antenna
D.  Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading-up procedure

T2A18 (C)
What is the proper way to ask someone their location when using a
repeater?
A.  What is your QTH
B.  What is your 20
C.  Where are you
D.  Locations are not normally told by radio

T2B  Simplex operations, Q signals, RST signal reporting,
repeater frequency coordination.

T2B01 (C)
Why should simplex be used where possible, instead of using a
repeater?
A.  Signal range will be increased
B.  Long distance toll charges will be avoided
C.  The repeater will not be tied up unnecessarily
D.  Your antenna's effectiveness will be better tested

T2B02 (A)
If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how would you
find out if you could communicate using simplex instead?
A.  See if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater's
input frequency
B.  See if you can clearly receive the station on a lower
frequency band
C.  See if you can clearly receive a more distant repeater
D.  See if a third station can clearly receive both of you

T2B03 (C)
If you are operating simplex on a repeater frequency, why would
it be good amateur practice to change to another frequency?
A.  The repeater's output power may ruin your station's receiver
B.  There are more repeater operators than simplex operators
C.  Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical
D.  Changing the repeater's frequency requires the authorization
of the FCC

T2B04 (D)
What is a repeater frequency coordinator?
A.  Someone who organizes the assembly of a repeater station
B.  Someone who provides advice on what kind of repeater to buy
C.  The person whose call sign is used for a repeater's
identification
D.  A person or group that recommends frequencies for repeater
usage

T2B05 (C)
What is the proper Q signal to use to see if a frequency is in
use before transmitting on CW?
A.  QRV?
B.  QRU?
C.  QRL?
D.  QRZ?

T2B06 (A)
What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSY"?
A.  Change frequency
B.  Send more slowly
C.  Send faster
D.  Use more power

T2B07 (B)
What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSO"?
A.  A contact is confirmed
B.  A conversation is in progress
C.  A contact is ending
D.  A conversation is desired

T2B08 (B)
What is the proper Q signal to use to ask if someone is calling
you on CW?
A.  QSL?
B.  QRZ?
C.  QRL?
D.  QRT?

T2B09 (A)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is five seven..."?
A.  Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong
B.  Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak
C.  Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty
D.  Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone

T2B10  (C)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is three three..."?
A.  The contact is serial number thirty-three
B.  The station is located at latitude 33 degrees
C.  Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak
in strength
D.  Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength

T2B11  (D)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is five nine plus 20
dB..."?
A.  Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100
B.  Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher
C.  The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity
D.  A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 decibels
greater than strength 9

T2C  Distress calling and emergency drills and communications -
operations and equipment, Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
(RACES)

T2C01 (A)
What is the proper distress call to use when operating phone?
A.  Say "MAYDAY" several times
B.  Say "HELP" several times
C.  Say "EMERGENCY" several times
D.  Say "SOS" several times

T2C02 (D)
What is the proper distress call to use when operating CW?
A.  MAYDAY
B.  QRRR
C.  QRZ
D.  SOS

T2C03 (A)
What is the proper way to interrupt a repeater conversation to
signal a distress call?
A.  Say "BREAK" twice, then your call sign
B.  Say "HELP" as many times as it takes to get someone to answer
C.  Say "SOS," then your call sign
D.  Say "EMERGENCY" three times

T2C04 (C)
With what organization must you register before you can
participate in RACES drills?
A.  A local Amateur Radio club
B.  A local racing organization
C.  The responsible civil defense organization
D.  The Federal Communications Commission

T2C05 (A)
What is the maximum number of hours allowed per week for RACES
drills?
A.  One
B.  Six, but not more than one hour per day
C.  Eight
D.  As many hours as you want

T2C06 (D)
How must you identify messages sent during a RACES drill?
A.  As emergency messages
B.  As amateur traffic
C.  As official government messages
D.  As drill or test messages

T2C07 (B)
What is one reason for using tactical call signs such as "command
post" or "weather center" during an emergency?
A.  They keep the general public informed about what is going on
B.  They are more efficient and help coordinate public-service
communications
C.  They are required by the FCC
D.  They increase goodwill between amateurs

T2C08 (D)
What type of messages concerning a person's well-being are sent
into or out of a disaster area?
A.  Routine traffic
B.  Tactical traffic
C.  Formal message traffic
D.  Health and Welfare traffic

T2C09 (B)
What are messages called which are sent into or out of a disaster
area concerning the immediate safety of human life?
A.  Tactical traffic
B.  Emergency traffic
C.  Formal message traffic
D.  Health and Welfare traffic

T2C10 (B)
Why is it a good idea to have a way to operate your amateur
station without using commercial AC power lines?
A.  So you may use your station while mobile
B.  So you may provide communications in an emergency
C.  So you may operate in contests where AC power is not allowed
D.  So you will comply with the FCC rules

T2C11 (C)
What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held
radio in an emergency?
A.  An extra antenna
B.  A portable amplifier
C.  Several sets of charged batteries
D.  A microphone headset for hands-free operation

T2C12 (C)
Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a
portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case of an
emergency?
A.  A three-element quad
B.  A three-element Yagi
C.  A dipole
D.  A parabolic dish

SUBELEMENT  T3  RADIO-WAVE PROPAGATION - [3 exam questions - 3
groups]

T3A  Ionosphere, ionospheric regions, solar radiation.

T3A01 (A)
What is the ionosphere?
A.  An area of the outer atmosphere where enough ions and free
electrons exist to propagate radio waves
B.  An area between two air masses of different temperature and
humidity, along which radio waves can travel
C.  An ionized path in the atmosphere where lightning has struck
D.  An area of the atmosphere where weather takes place

T3A02 (D) What is the name of the area that makes long-distance
radio communications possible by bending radio waves?
A.  Troposphere
B.  Stratosphere
C.  Magnetosphere
D.  Ionosphere

T3A03 (A)
What causes the ionosphere to form?
A.  Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere
B.  Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere
C.  Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere
D.  Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere

T3A04 (C)
What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization
in the outer atmosphere?
A.  Thermal
B.  Ionized particle
C.  Ultraviolet
D.  Microwave

T3A05 (A)
Which ionospheric region limits daytime radio communications on
the 80-meter band to short distances?
A.  D region
B.  E region
C.  F1 region
D.  F2 region

T3A06 (B)
Which ionospheric region is closest to the earth?
A.  The A region
B.  The D region
C.  The E region
D.  The F region

T3A07 (B)
Which ionospheric region most affects sky-wave propagation on the
6-meter band?
A.  The D region
B.  The E region
C.  The F1 region
D.  The F2 region

T3A08 (A)
Which region of the ionosphere is the least useful for long-
distance radio wave propagation?
A.  The D region
B.  The E region
C.  The F1 region
D.  The F2 region

T3A09 (D)
Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long-
distance sky-wave radio communications?
A.  D region
B.  E region
C.  F1 region
D.  F2 region

T3A10 (B)
What two sub-regions of ionosphere exist only in the daytime?
A.  Troposphere and stratosphere
B.  F1 and F2
C.  Electrostatic and electromagnetic
D.  D and E

T3A11 (C)
Which two daytime ionospheric regions combine into one region at
night?
A.  E and F1
B.  D and E
C.  F1 and F2
D.  E1 and E2

T3B  Ionospheric absorption, causes and variation, maximum usable
frequency.

T3B01 (D)
Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for
absorbing radio signals during the daytime?
A.  The F2 region
B.  The F1 region
C.  The E region
D.  The D region

T3B02 (B)
When does ionospheric absorption of radio signals occur?
A.  When tropospheric ducting occurs
B.  When long-wavelength signals enter the D region
C.  When signals travel to the F region
D.  When a temperature inversion occurs

T3B03 (A)
What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower-
frequency HF signals in the daytime?
A.  It absorbs the signals
B.  It bends the radio waves out into space
C.  It refracts the radio waves back to earth
D.  It has little or no effect on 80-meter radio waves

T3B04 (B)
What causes the ionosphere to absorb radio waves?
A.  The weather below the ionosphere
B.  The ionization of the D region
C.  The presence of ionized clouds in the E region
D.  The splitting of the F region

T3B05 (D)
What is the condition of the ionosphere just before local
sunrise?
A.  Atmospheric attenuation is at a maximum
B.  The D region is above the E region
C.  The E region is above the F region
D.  Ionization is at a minimum

T3B06 (C)
When is the ionosphere most ionized?
A.  Dusk
B.  Midnight
C.  Midday
D.  Dawn

T3B07 (A)
When is the ionosphere least ionized?
A.  Shortly before dawn
B.  Just after noon
C.  Just after dusk
D.  Shortly before midnight

T3B08 (B)
When is the E region most ionized?
A.  Dawn
B.  Midday
C.  Dusk
D.  Midnight

T3B09 (A)
What happens to signals higher in frequency than the critical
frequency?
A.  They pass through the ionosphere
B.  They are absorbed by the ionosphere
C.  Their frequency is changed by the ionosphere to be below the
maximum usable frequency
D.  They are reflected back to their source

T3B10 (C)
What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?
A.  The temperature of the ionosphere
B.  The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere
C.  The amount of radiation received from the sun, mainly
ultraviolet
D.  The type of weather just below the ionosphere

T3B11 (A)
What does maximum usable frequency mean?
A.  The highest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination
B.  The lowest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination
C.  The highest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the
ionosphere
D.  The lowest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the
ionosphere

T3C  Propagation, including ionospheric, tropospheric, line-of-
sight scatter propagation, and Maximum Usable Frequency.

T3C01 (C)
What kind of propagation would best be used by two stations
within each other's skip zone on a certain frequency?
A.  Ground-wave
B.  Sky-wave
C.  Scatter-mode
D.  Ducting

T3C02 (C)
If you are receiving a weak and distorted signal from a distant
station on a frequency close to the maximum usable frequency,
what type of propagation is probably occurring?
A.  Ducting
B.  Line-of-sight
C.  Scatter
D.  Ground-wave

T3C03 (B)
How are VHF signals propagated within the range of the visible
horizon?
A.  By sky wave
B.  By direct wave
C.  By plane wave
D.  By geometric wave

T3C04 (C)
Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?
A.  F2
B.  Ectosphere
C.  Troposphere
D.  Stratosphere

T3C05 (A)
What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-meter radio
waves?
A.  It lets you contact stations farther away
B.  It causes them to travel shorter distances
C.  It garbles the signal
D.  It reverses the sideband of the signal

T3C06 (D)
What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?
A.  A very low pressure area
B.  An aurora to the north
C.  Lightning between the transmitting and receiving stations
D.  A temperature inversion

T3C07 (B)
What causes VHF radio waves to be propagated several hundred
miles over oceans?
A.  A polar air mass
B.  A widespread temperature inversion
C.  An overcast of cirriform clouds
D.  A high-pressure zone

T3C08 (D)
In what frequency range does tropospheric ducting most often
occur?
A.  SW
B.  MF
C.  HF
D.  VHF

T3C09 (D)
In what frequency range does sky-wave propagation least often
occur?
A.  LF
B.  MF
C.  HF
D.  VHF

T3C10 (A)
What weather condition may cause tropospheric ducting?
A.  A stable high-pressure system
B.  An unstable low-pressure system
C.  A series of low-pressure waves
D.  Periods of heavy rainfall

T3C11 (D)
What band conditions might indicate long-range skip on the 6-
meter and 2-meter bands?
A.  Noise on the 80-meter band
B.  The absence of signals on the 10-meter band
C.  Very long-range skip on the 10-meter band
D.  Strong signals on the 10-meter band from stations about 500-
600 miles away

SUBELEMENT T4  AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES  [4 Exam Questions - 4
groups]

T4A  Electrical wiring, including switch location, dangerous
voltages and currents.

T4A01 (C)
Where should the green wire in a three-wire AC line cord be
connected in a power supply?
A.  To the fuse
B.  To the "hot" side of the power switch
C.  To the chassis
D.  To the white wire

T4A02 (D)
Where should the black (or red) wire in a three-wire AC line cord
be connected in a power supply?
A.  To the white wire
B.  To the green wire
C.  To the chassis
D.  To the fuse

T4A03 (B)
Where should the white wire in a three-wire AC line cord be
connected in a power supply?
A.  To the side of the power transformer's primary winding that
has a fuse
B.  To the side of the power transformer's primary winding that
does not have a fuse
C.  To the chassis
D.  To the black wire

T4A04 (D)
What document is used by almost every US city as the basis for
electrical safety requirements for power wiring and antennas?
A.  The Code of Federal Regulations
B.  The Proceedings of the IEEE
C.  The ITU Radio Regulations
D.  The National Electrical Code

T4A05 (C)
What document would you use to see if you comply with standard
electrical safety rules when building an amateur antenna?
A.  The Code of Federal Regulations
B.  The Proceedings of the IEEE
C.  The National Electrical Code
D.  The ITU Radio Regulations

T4A06 (D)
Where should fuses be connected on a mobile transceiver's DC
power cable?
A.  Between the red and black wires
B.  In series with just the black wire
C.  In series with just the red wire
D.  In series with both the red and black wires

T4A07 (B)
Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a wall outlet made
of brass while the other one is silver colored?
A.  To prevent corrosion
B.  To indicate correct wiring polarity
C.  To better conduct current
D.  To reduce skin effect

T4A08 (A)
How much electrical current flowing through the human body is
usually fatal?
A.  As little as 1/10 of an ampere
B.  Approximately 10 amperes
C.  More than 20 amperes
D.  Current flow through the human body is never fatal

T4A09 (A)
Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount
of electrical current?
A.  The heart
B.  The brain
C.  The liver
D.  The lungs

T4A10 (A)
How much electrical current flowing through the human body is
usually painful?
A.  As little as 1/500 of an ampere
B.  Approximately 10 amperes
C.  More than 20 amperes
D.  Current flow through the human body is never painful

T4A11 (A)
What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans?
A.  30 volts
B.  100 volts
C.  1000 volts
D.  2000 volts

T4A12 (C)
Where should the main power switch for a high-voltage power
supply be located?
A.  Inside the cabinet, to kill the power if the cabinet is
opened
B.  On the back side of the cabinet, out of sight
C.  Anywhere that can be seen and reached easily
D.  A high-voltage power supply should not be switch-operated

T4A13 (B)
What precaution should you take when leaning over a power
amplifier?
A.  Take your shoes off
B.  Watch out for loose jewelry contacting high voltage
C.  Shield your face from the heat produced by the power supply
D.  Watch out for sharp edges which may snag your clothing

T4A14 (C)
What is an important safety rule concerning the main electrical
box in your home?
A.  Make sure the door cannot be opened easily
B.  Make sure something is placed in front of the door so no one
will be able to get to it easily
C.  Make sure others in your home know where it is and how to
shut off the electricity
D.  Warn others in your home never to touch the switches, even in
an emergency

T4A15 (B)
What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by
high voltage?
A.  Run from the area so you won't be burned too
B.  Turn off the power, call for emergency help and give CPR if
needed
C.  Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage
D.  Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from
the high voltage on their own, then try to help

T4B  Meters, including volt, amp, multi, peak-reading, RF watt
and placement, and ratings of fuses and switches.

T4B01 (B)
How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A.  In series with the circuit
B.  In parallel with the circuit
C.  In quadrature with the circuit
D.  In phase with the circuit

T4B02 (C)
How can the range of a voltmeter be increased?
A.  By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
B.  By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
C.  By adding resistance in series with the meter, between the
meter and the circuit under test
D.  By adding resistance in parallel with the meter, between the
meter and the circuit under test

T4B03 (A)
What happens inside a voltmeter when you switch it from a lower
to a higher voltage range?
A.  Resistance is added in series with the meter
B.  Resistance is added in parallel with the meter
C.  Resistance is reduced in series with the meter
D.  Resistance is reduced in parallel with the meter

T4B04 (A)
How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A.  In series with the circuit
B.  In parallel with the circuit
C.  In quadrature with the circuit
D.  In phase with the circuit

T4B05 (D)
How can the range of an ammeter be increased?
A.  By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
B.  By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
C.  By adding resistance in series with the meter
D.  By adding resistance in parallel with the meter

T4B06 (D)
What does a multimeter measure?
A.  SWR and power
B.  Resistance, capacitance and inductance
C.  Resistance and reactance
D.  Voltage, current and resistance

T4B07 (A)
Where should an RF wattmeter be connected for the most accurate
readings of transmitter output power?
A.  At the transmitter output connector
B.  At the antenna feed point
C.  One-half wavelength from the transmitter output
D.  One-half wavelength from the antenna feed point

T4B08 (B)
At what line impedance do most RF wattmeters usually operate?
A.  25 ohms
B.  50 ohms
C.  100 ohms
D.  300 ohms

T4B09 (A)
What does a directional wattmeter measure?
A.  Forward and reflected power
B.  The directional pattern of an antenna
C.  The energy used by a transmitter
D.  Thermal heating in a load resistor

T4B10 (B)
If a directional RF wattmeter reads 90 watts forward power and 10
watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output
power?
A.  10 watts
B.  80 watts
C.  90 watts
D.  100 watts

T4B11 (C)
If a directional RF wattmeter reads 96 watts forward power and 4
watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output
power?
A.  80 watts
B.  88 watts
C.  92 watts
D.  100 watts

T4C  Marker generator, crystal calibrator, signal generators and
impedance-match indicator.

T4C01 (A)
What is a marker generator?
A.  A high-stability oscillator that generates reference signals
at exact frequency intervals
B.  A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a range of
frequencies
C.  A low-stability oscillator used to inject a signal into a
circuit under test
D.  A high-stability oscillator which can produce a wide range of
frequencies and amplitudes

T4C02 (A)
How is a marker generator used?
A.  To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver
B.  To calibrate the volume control on a receiver
C.  To test the amplitude linearity of a transmitter
D.  To test the frequency deviation of a transmitter

T4C03 (D)
What device is used to inject a frequency calibration signal into
a receiver?
A.  A calibrated voltmeter
B.  A calibrated oscilloscope
C.  A calibrated wavemeter
D.  A crystal calibrator

T4C04 (B)
What frequency standard may be used to calibrate the tuning dial
of a receiver?
A.  A calibrated voltmeter
B.  Signals from WWV and WWVH
C.  A deviation meter
D.  A sweep generator

T4C05 (C)
How might you check the accuracy of your receiver's tuning dial?
A.  Tune to the frequency of a shortwave broadcasting station
B.  Tune to a popular amateur net frequency
C.  Tune to one of the frequencies of station WWV or WWVH
D.  Tune to another amateur station and ask what frequency the
operator is using

T4C06 (C)
What device produces a stable, low-level signal that can be set
to a desired frequency?
A.  A wavemeter
B.  A reflectometer
C.  A signal generator
D.  An oscilloscope

T4C07 (B)
What is an RF signal generator used for?
A.  Measuring RF signal amplitudes
B.  Aligning tuned circuits
C.  Adjusting transmitter impedance-matching networks
D.  Measuring transmission-line impedances

T4C08 (D)
What device can measure an impedance mismatch in your antenna
system?
A.  A field-strength meter
B.  An ammeter
C.  A wavemeter
D.  A reflectometer

T4C09 (A)
Where should a reflectometer be connected for best accuracy when
reading the impedance match between an antenna and its feed line?
A.  At the antenna feed point
B.  At the transmitter output connector
C.  At the midpoint of the feed line
D.  Anywhere along the feed line

T4C10  (A)
If you use a 3-30 MHz RF power meter for VHF, how accurate will
its readings be?
A.  They will not be accurate
B.  They will be accurate enough to get by
C.  If it properly calibrates to full scale in the set position,
they may be accurate
D.  They will be accurate providing the readings are multiplied
by 4.5

T4C11 (C)
If you use a 3-30 MHz SWR meter for VHF, how accurate will its
readings be?
A.  They will not be accurate
B.  They will be accurate enough to get by
C.  If it properly calibrates to full scale in the set position,
they may be accurate
D.  They will be accurate providing the readings are multiplied
by 4.5

T4D  Dummy antennas, S-meter, exposure of the human body to RF.

T4D01 (D)
What device should be connected to a transmitter's output when
you are making transmitter adjustments?
A.  A multimeter
B.  A reflectometer
C.  A receiver
D.  A dummy antenna

T4D02 (B)
What is a dummy antenna?
A.  An nondirectional transmitting antenna
B.  A nonradiating load for a transmitter
C.  An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements
D.  A flexible antenna usually used on hand-held transceivers

T4D03 (C)
What is the main component of a dummy antenna?
A.  A wire-wound resistor
B.  An iron-core coil
C.  A noninductive resistor
D.  An air-core coil

T4D04 (B)
What device is used in place of an antenna during transmitter
tests so that no signal is radiated?
A.  An antenna matcher
B.  A dummy antenna
C.  A low-pass filter
D.  A decoupling resistor

T4D05 (A)
Why would you use a dummy antenna?
A.  For off-the-air transmitter testing
B.  To reduce output power
C.  To give comparative signal reports
D.  To allow antenna tuning without causing interference

T4D06 (A)
What minimum rating should a dummy antenna have for use with a
100-watt single-sideband phone transmitter?
A.  100 watts continuous
B.  141 watts continuous
C.  175 watts continuous
D.  200 watts continuous

T4D07 (D)
Why might a dummy antenna get warm when in use?
A.  Because it stores electric current
B.  Because it stores radio waves
C.  Because it absorbs static electricity
D.  Because it changes RF energy into heat

T4D08 (A)
What is used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver?
A.  An S meter
B.  An RST meter
C.  A signal deviation meter
D.  An SSB meter

T4D09 (B)
How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body
tissue?
A.  It causes radiation poisoning
B.  It heats the tissue
C.  It paralyzes the tissue
D.  It produces genetic changes in the tissue

T4D10 (A)
Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the
heating effects of RF radiation?
A.  Eyes
B.  Hands
C.  Heart
D.  Liver

T4D11 (D)
What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum
limits of RF energy near the human body?
A.  The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
B.  The Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
C.  The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
D.  The American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

T4D12 (B)
What is the purpose of the ANSI RF protection guide?
A.  It lists all RF frequency allocations for interference
protection
B.  It gives RF exposure limits for the human body
C.  It sets transmitter power limits for interference protection
D.  It sets antenna height limits for aircraft protection

T4D13 (D)
According to the ANSI RF protection guide, what frequencies cause
us the greatest risk from RF energy?
A.  3 to 30 MHz
B.  300 to 3000 MHz
C.  Above 1500 MHz
D.  30 to 300 MHz

T4D14 (D)
Why is the limit of exposure to RF the lowest in the frequency
range of 30 MHz to 300 MHz, according to the ANSI RF protection
guide?
A.  There are more transmitters operating in this range
B.  There are fewer transmitters operating in this range
C.  Most transmissions in this range are for a longer time
D.  The human body absorbs RF energy the most in this range

T4D15 (B)
According to the ANSI RF protection guide, what is the maximum
safe power output to the antenna of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio?
A.  125 milliwatts
B.  7 watts
C.  10 watts
D.  25 watts

T4D16 (C)
After you have opened a VHF power amplifier to make internal
tuning adjustments, what should you do before you turn the
amplifier on?
A.  Remove all amplifier shielding to ensure maximum cooling
B.  Make sure that the power interlock switch is bypassed so you
can test the amplifier
C.  Be certain all amplifier shielding is fastened in place
D.  Be certain no antenna is attached so that you will not cause
any interference

SUBELEMENT T5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES  [2 exam questions - 2
groups]

T5A  Definition of resistance, inductance, and capacitance and
unit of measurement, calculation of values in series and
parallel.

T5A01 (D)
What does resistance do in an electric circuit?
A.  It stores energy in a magnetic field
B.  It stores energy in an electric field
C.  It provides electrons by a chemical reaction
D.  It opposes the flow of electrons

T5A02 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
A.  Admittance
B.  Capacitance
C.  Resistance
D.  Inductance

T5A03 (C)
What is the basic unit of inductance?
A.  The coulomb
B.  The farad
C.  The henry
D.  The ohm

T5A04 (C)
What is a henry?
A.  The basic unit of admittance
B.  The basic unit of capacitance
C.  The basic unit of inductance
D.  The basic unit of resistance

T5A05 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?
A.  Inductance
B.  Resistance
C.  Tolerance
D.  Capacitance

T5A06 (A)
What is the basic unit of capacitance?
A.  The farad
B.  The ohm
C.  The volt
D.  The henry

T5A07 (B)
What is a farad?
A.  The basic unit of resistance
B.  The basic unit of capacitance
C.  The basic unit of inductance
D.  The basic unit of admittance

T5A08 (B)
If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is
their total inductance?
A.  Half the value of one inductor
B.  Twice the value of one inductor
C.  The same as the value of either inductor
D.  The value of one inductor times the value of the other

T5A09 (A)
If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is
their total inductance?
A.  Half the value of one inductor
B.  Twice the value of one inductor
C.  The same as the value of either inductor
D.  The value of one inductor times the value of the other

T5A10 (C)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is
their total capacitance?
A.  Twice the value of one capacitor
B.  The same as the value of either capacitor
C.  Half the value of either capacitor
D.  The value of one capacitor times the value of the other

T5A11 (A)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is
their total capacitance?
A.  Twice the value of one capacitor
B.  Half the value of one capacitor
C.  The same as the value of either capacitor
D.  The value of one capacitor times the value of the other

T5B  Ohm's Law.

T5B01 (D)
Ohm's Law describes the mathematical relationship between what
three electrical quantities?
A.  Resistance, voltage and power
B.  Current, resistance and power
C.  Current, voltage and power
D.  Resistance, current and voltage

T5B02 (C)
How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage
and resistance are known?
A.  I = R x E [current equals resistance multiplied by voltage]
B.  I = R / E [current equals resistance divided by voltage]
C.  I = E / R [current equals voltage divided by resistance]
D.  I = P / E [current equals power divided by voltage]

T5B03 (B)
How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage
and current are known?
A.  R = I / E [resistance equals current divided by voltage]
B.  R = E / I [resistance equals voltage divided by current]
C.  R = I x E [resistance equals current multiplied by voltage]
D.  R = P / E [resistance equals power divided by voltage]

T5B04 (C)
How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated when the current
and resistance are known?
A.  E = I / R [voltage equals current divided by resistance]
B.  E = R / I [voltage equals resistance divided by current]
C.  E = I x R [voltage equals current multiplied by resistance]
D.  E = P / I [voltage equals power divided by current]

T5B05 (D)
If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a circuit, what is
the circuit's resistance?
A.  0.25 ohm
B.  3 ohm
C.  12 ohms
D.  48 ohms

T5B06 (D)
If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.15 ampere to a circuit, what is
the circuit's resistance?
A.  0.15 ohm
B.  1.8 ohm
C.  12 ohms
D.  80 ohms

T5B07 (B)
If a 4800-ohm resistor is connected to 120 volts,
how much current will flow through it?
A.  4 A
B.  25 mA
C.  25 A
D.  40 mA

T5B08 (D)
If a 48000-ohm resistor is connected to 120 volts,
how much current will flow through it?
A.  400 A
B.  40 A
C.  25 mA
D.  2.5 mA

T5B09 (A)
If a 4800-ohm resistor is connected to 12 volts,
how much current will flow through it?
A.  2.5 mA
B.  25 mA
C.  40 A
D.  400 A

T5B10 (A)
If a 48000-ohm resistor is connected to 12 volts,
how much current will flow through it?
A.  250 uA
B.  250 mA
C.  4000 mA
D.  4000 A

T5B11  (A)
If you know the voltage and current supplied to a circuit, what
formula would you use to calculate the circuit's resistance?
A.  Ohm's Law
B.  Tesla's Law
C.  Ampere's Law
D.  Kirchhoff's Law

SUBELEMENT T6 -  CIRCUIT COMPONENTS - [2 Exam Questions - 2
groups]

T6A  Resistors, construction types, variable and fixed, color
code, power ratings, schematic symbols.

T6A01 (B)
Which of the following are common resistor types?
A.  Plastic and porcelain
B.  Film and wire-wound
C.  Electrolytic and metal-film
D.  Iron core and brass core

T6A02 (C)
What does a variable resistor or potentiometer do?
A.  Its resistance changes when AC is applied to it
B.  It transforms a variable voltage into a constant voltage
C.  Its resistance changes when its slide or contact is moved
D.  Its resistance changes when it is heated

T6A03 (B)
How do you find a resistor's tolerance rating?
A.  By using a voltmeter
B.  By reading the resistor's color code
C.  By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
D.  By reading its Baudot code

T6A04 (A)
What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate?
A.  The value of the resistor in ohms
B.  The resistance tolerance in percent
C.  The power rating in watts
D.  The resistance material

T6A05 (B)
What does the fourth color band on a resistor indicate?
A.  The value of the resistor in ohms
B.  The resistance tolerance in percent
C.  The power rating in watts
D.  The resistance material

T6A06 (A)
Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use?
A.  Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat
B.  Their reactance makes them heat up
C.  Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up
D.  They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot

T6A07 (C)
Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one
of the same resistance?
A.  For better response time
B.  For a higher current gain
C.  For greater power dissipation
D.  For less impedance in the circuit

T6A08  (C)
What are the possible values of a 100-ohm resistor with a 10%
tolerance?
A.  90 to 100 ohms
B.  10 to 100 ohms
C.  90 to 110 ohms
D.  80 to 120 ohms

T6A09  (B)
How do you find a resistor's value?
A.  By using a voltmeter
B.  By using the resistor's color code
C.  By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
D.  By using the Baudot code

T6A10  (A)
Which tolerance rating would a high-quality resistor have?
A.  0.1%
B.  5%
C.  10%
D.  20%

T6A11  (D)
Which tolerance rating would a low-quality resistor have?
A.  0.1%
B.  5%
C.  10%
D.  20%

T6B  Schematic symbols - inductors and capacitors, construction
of variable and fixed, factors affecting inductance and
capacitance, capacitor construction.

T6B01 (D)
What is an inductor core?
A.  The place where a coil is tapped for resonance
B.  A tight coil of wire used in a transformer
C.  Insulating material placed between the wires of a transformer
D.  The place inside an inductor where its magnetic field is
concentrated

T6B02 (C)
What does an inductor do?
A.  It stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change in
voltage
B.  It stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in
current
C.  It stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change
in current
D.  It stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change
in voltage

T6B03 (D)
What determines the inductance of a coil?
A.  The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil
and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically
B.  The core diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind
the coil and the type of metal used for the wire
C.  The core material, the number of turns used to wind the core
and the frequency of the current through the coil
D.  The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil
and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil

T6B04 (A)
As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to the coil's
inductance?
A.  It increases
B.  It decreases
C.  It stays the same
D.  It disappears

T6B05 (A)
What can happen if you tune a ferrite-core coil with a metal
tool?
A.  The metal tool can change the coil's inductance and cause you
to tune the coil incorrectly
B.  The metal tool can become magnetized so much that you might
not be able to remove it from the coil
C.  The metal tool can pick up enough magnetic energy to become
very hot
D.  The metal tool can pick up enough magnetic energy to become a
shock hazard

T6B06 (B)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an adjustable inductor?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B07 (D)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an iron-core inductor?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B08 (D)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an inductor wound over a
toroidal core?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B09 (A)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents an electrolytic capacitor?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B10 (C)
In Figure T6-1 which symbol represents a variable capacitor?
A.  Symbol 1
B.  Symbol 2
C.  Symbol 3
D.  Symbol 4

T6B11 (C)
What describes a capacitor?
A.  Two or more layers of silicon material with an insulating
material between them
B.  The wire used in the winding and the core material
C.  Two or more conductive plates with an insulating material
between them
D.  Two or more insulating plates with a conductive material
between them

T6B12 (B)
What does a capacitor do?
A.  It stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change in
current
B.  It stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change in
voltage
C.  It stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change
in current
D.  It stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change
in voltage

T6B13 (A)
What determines the capacitance of a capacitor?
A.  The material between the plates, the area of one side of one
plate, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates
B.  The material between the plates, the number of plates and the
size of the wires connected to the plates
C.  The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and
whether the dielectric material is N type or P type
D.  The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the
number of plates and the material used for the protective coating

T6B14 (B)
As the plate area of a capacitor is increased, what happens to
its capacitance?
A.  It decreases
B.  It increases
C.  It stays the same
D.  It disappears

SUBELEMENT T7 -  PRACTICAL CIRCUITS - [1 exam question - 1 group]

T7A  Practical circuits.

T7A01 (C)
Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low-pass filter in
their RF output circuits?
A.  To reduce RF energy below a cutoff point
B.  To reduce low-frequency interference to other amateurs
C.  To reduce harmonic radiation
D.  To reduce fundamental radiation

T7A02 (A)
What circuit blocks RF energy above and below a certain limit?
A.  A band-pass filter
B.  A high-pass filter
C.  An input filter
D.  A low-pass filter

T7A03 (A)
What type of filter is used in the IF section of receivers to
block energy outside a certain frequency range?
A.  A band-pass filter
B.  A high-pass filter
C.  An input filter
D.  A low-pass filter

T7A04 (C)
What circuit is found in all types of receivers?
A.  An audio filter
B.  A beat-frequency oscillator
C.  A detector
D.  An RF amplifier

T7A05 (D)
What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a
driver and a power amplifier?
A.  A packet-radio transmitter
B.  A crystal-controlled transmitter
C.  A single-sideband transmitter
D.  A VFO-controlled transmitter

T7A06 (B)
What circuit combines signals from an IF amplifier stage and a
beat-frequency oscillator (BFO), to produce an audio signal?
A.  An AGC circuit
B.  A detector circuit
C.  A power supply circuit
D.  A VFO circuit

T7A07 (D)
What circuit uses a limiter and a frequency discriminator to
produce an audio signal?
A.  A double-conversion receiver
B.  A variable-frequency oscillator
C.  A superheterodyne receiver
D.  A FM receiver

T7A08 (D)
What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-1 if block 1 is a variable-
frequency oscillator?
A.  A packet-radio transmitter
B.  A crystal-controlled transmitter
C.  A single-sideband transmitter
D.  A VFO-controlled transmitter

T7A09 (B)
What is the unlabeled block in Figure T7-2?
A.  An AGC circuit
B.  A detector
C.  A power supply
D.  A VFO circuit

T7A10 (D)
What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-3?
A.  A double-conversion receiver
B.  A variable-frequency oscillator
C.  A superheterodyne receiver
D.  An FM receiver

T7A11 (C)
What is the unlabeled block in Figure T7-4?
A.  A band-pass filter
B.  A crystal oscillator
C.  A reactance modulator
D.  A rectifier modulator

SUBELEMENT T8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS  [2 exam questions - 2
groups]

T8A  Definition of modulation and emission types.

T8A01 (B)
What is the name for unmodulated carrier wave emissions?
A.  Phone
B.  Test
C.  CW
D.  RTTY

T8A02 (C)
What is the name for Morse code emissions produced by switching a
transmitter's output on and off?
A.  Phone
B.  Test
C.  CW
D.  RTTY

T8A03 (B)
What is RTTY?
A.  Amplitude-keyed telegraphy
B.  Frequency-shift-keyed telegraphy
C.  Frequency-modulated telephony
D.  Phase-modulated telephony

T8A04 (B)
What is the name for packet-radio emissions?
A.  CW
B.  Data
C.  Phone
D.  RTTY

T8A05 (D)
How is tone-modulated Morse code produced?
A.  By feeding a microphone's audio signal into an FM transmitter
B.  By feeding an on/off keyed audio tone into a CW transmitter
C.  By on/off keying of a carrier
D.  By feeding an on/off keyed audio tone into a transmitter

T8A06 (D)
What is the name of the voice emission most used on VHF/UHF
repeaters?
A.  Single-sideband phone
B.  Pulse-modulated phone
C.  Slow-scan phone
D.  Frequency-modulated phone

T8A07 (A)
What is the name of the voice emission most used on amateur HF
bands?
A.  Single-sideband phone
B.  Pulse-modulated phone
C.  Slow-scan phone
D.  Frequency-modulated phone

T8A08 (A)
What is meant by the upper-sideband (USB)?
A.  The part of a single-sideband signal which is above the
carrier frequency
B.  The part of a single-sideband signal which is below the
carrier frequency
C.  Any frequency above 10 MHz
D.  The carrier frequency of a single-sideband signal

T8A09 (D)
What emissions are produced by a transmitter using a reactance
modulator?
A.  CW
B.  Test
C.  Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier phone
D.  Phase-modulated phone

T8A10 (C)
What other emission does phase modulation most resemble?
A.  Amplitude modulation
B.  Pulse modulation
C.  Frequency modulation
D.  Single-sideband modulation

T8A11  (B)
What is the name for emissions produced by an on/off keyed audio
tone?
A.  RTTY
B.  MCW
C.  CW
D.  Phone

T8B  RF carrier, modulation, bandwidth and deviation.

T8B01 (A)
What is another name for a constant-amplitude radio-frequency
signal?
A.  An RF carrier
B.  An AF carrier
C.  A sideband carrier
D.  A subcarrier

T8B02 (A)
What is modulation?
A.  Varying a radio wave in some way to send information
B.  Receiving audio information from a signal
C.  Increasing the power of a transmitter
D.  Suppressing the carrier in a single-sideband transmitter

T8B03 (A)
What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its
microphone failed to work?
A.  An unmodulated carrier
B.  A phase-modulated carrier
C.  An amplitude-modulated carrier
D.  A frequency-modulated carrier

T8B04 (B)
How would you modulate a 2-meter FM transceiver to produce
packet-radio emissions?
A.  Connect a terminal-node controller to interrupt the
transceiver's carrier wave
B.  Connect a terminal-node controller to the transceiver's
microphone input
C.  Connect a keyboard to the transceiver's microphone input
D.  Connect a DTMF key pad to the transceiver's microphone input

T8B05 (C)
Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications?
A.  The carrier is not detectable
B.  It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected
signals
C.  It has high-fidelity audio which can be understood even when
the signal is somewhat weak
D.  Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes

T8B06 (D)
Why do many radio receivers have several IF filters of different
bandwidths that can be selected by the operator?
A.  Because some frequency bands are wider than others
B.  Because different bandwidths help increase the receiver
sensitivity
C.  Because different bandwidths improve S-meter readings
D.  Because some emission types need a wider bandwidth than
others to be received properly

T8B07 (C)
Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest
bandwidth to the widest bandwidth?
A.  RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice
B.  CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice
C.  CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice
D.  CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice

T8B08 (D)
What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal?
A.  1 kHz
B.  2 kHz
C.  Between 3 and 6 kHz
D.  Between 2 and 3 kHz

T8B09 (C)
What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur
signal?
A.  Less than 5 kHz
B.  Between 5 and 10 kHz
C.  Between 10 and 20 kHz
D.  Greater than 20 kHz

T8B10 (B)
What is the result of overdeviation in an FM transmitter?
A.  Increased transmitter power
B.  Out-of-channel emissions
C.  Increased transmitter range
D.  Poor carrier suppression

T8B11 (C)
What causes splatter interference?
A.  Keying a transmitter too fast
B.  Signals from a transmitter's output circuit are being sent
back to its input circuit
C.  Overmodulation of a transmitter
D.  The transmitting antenna is the wrong length

SUBELEMENT T9 -  ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES  [3 exam questions - 3
groups]

T9A  Parasitic beam and non-directional antennas.

T9A01 (C)
What is a directional antenna?
A.  An antenna which sends and receives radio energy equally well
in all directions
B.  An antenna that cannot send and receive radio energy by
skywave or skip propagation
C.  An antenna which sends and receives radio energy mainly in
one direction
D.  An antenna which sends and receives radio energy equally well
in two opposite directions

T9A02 (A)
How is a Yagi antenna constructed?
A.  Two or more straight, parallel elements are fixed in line
with each other
B.  Two or more square or circular loops are fixed in line with
each other
C.  Two or more square or circular loops are stacked inside each
other
D.  A straight element is fixed in the center of three or more
elements which angle toward the ground

T9A03 (C)
What type of beam antenna uses two or more straight elements
arranged in line with each other?
A.  A delta loop antenna
B.  A quad antenna
C.  A Yagi antenna
D.  A Zepp antenna

T9A04 (B)
How many directly driven elements do most beam antennas have?
A.  None
B.  One
C.  Two
D.  Three

T9A05 (A)
What is a parasitic beam antenna?
A.  An antenna where some elements obtain their radio energy by
induction or radiation from a driven element
B.  An antenna where wave traps are used to magnetically couple
the elements
C.  An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection
to the feed line
D.  An antenna where the driven element obtains its radio energy
by induction or radiation from director elements

T9A06 (D)
What are the parasitic elements of a Yagi antenna?
A.  The driven element and any reflectors
B.  The director and the driven element
C.  Only the reflectors (if any)
D.  Any directors or any reflectors

T9A07 (B)
What is a cubical quad antenna?
A.  Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other,
each approximately 1/2-electrical wavelength long
B.  Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each
approximately one-electrical wavelength long
C.  A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical wavelength high, fed at
the bottom
D.  A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long

T9A08 (A)
What is a delta loop antenna?
A.  A type of cubical quad antenna, except with triangular
elements rather than square
B.  A large copper ring or wire loop, used in direction finding
C.  An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged
in a triangular shape
D.  An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an
insulating form

T9A09 (D)
What type of non-directional antenna is easy to make at home and
works well outdoors?
A.  A Yagi
B.  A delta loop
C.  A cubical quad
D.  A ground plane

T9A10 (D)
What type of antenna is made when a magnetic-base whip antenna is
placed on the roof of a car?
A.  A Yagi
B.  A delta loop
C.  A cubical quad
D.  A ground plane

T9A11 (A)
If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car,
in what direction does it send out radio energy?
A.  It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions
B.  Most of it goes in one direction
C.  Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions
D.  Most of it is aimed high into the air

T9B  Polarization, impedance matching and SWR, feed lines,
balanced vs unbalanced (including baluns).

T9B01 (B)
What does horizontal wave polarization mean?
A.  The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to
the earth's surface
B.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to
the earth's surface
C.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular
to the earth's surface
D.  The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are
perpendicular to the earth's surface

T9B02 (C)
What does vertical wave polarization mean?
A.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to
the earth's surface
B.  The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular
to the earth's surface
C.  The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular
to the earth's surface
D.  The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are
parallel to the earth's surface

T9B03 (C)
What electromagnetic-wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have
when its elements are parallel to the earth's surface?
A.  Circular
B.  Helical
C.  Horizontal
D.  Vertical

T9B04 (D)
What electromagnetic-wave polarization does a half-wavelength
antenna have when it is perpendicular to the earth's surface?
A.  Circular
B.  Horizontal
C.  Parabolical
D.  Vertical

T9B05 (D)
What electromagnetic-wave polarization does most man-made
electrical noise have in the HF and VHF spectrum?
A.  Horizontal
B.  Left-hand circular
C.  Right-hand circular
D.  Vertical

T9B06 (D)
What does standing-wave ratio mean?
A.  The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line
B.  The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a feed line
C.  The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line
D.  The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line

T9B07 (A)
What does forward power mean?
A.  The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna
B.  The power radiated from the top of an antenna system
C.  The power produced during the positive half of an RF cycle
D.  The power used to drive a linear amplifier

T9B08 (B)
What does reflected power mean?
A.  The power radiated down to the ground from an antenna
B.  The power returned to a transmitter from an antenna
C.  The power produced during the negative half of an RF cycle
D.  The power returned to an antenna by buildings and trees

T9B09 (C)
What happens to radio energy when it is sent through a poor
quality coaxial cable?
A.  It causes spurious emissions
B.  It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground
C.  It is converted to heat in the cable
D.  It causes interference to other stations near the
transmitting frequency

T9B10 (C)
What is an unbalanced line?
A.  Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground
B.  Feed line with both conductors connected to ground
C.  Feed line with one conductor connected to ground
D.  Feed line with both conductors connected to each other

T9B11 (A)
What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an
unbalanced feed line?
A.  A balun
B.  A loading coil
C.  A triaxial transformer
D.  A wavetrap

T9C  Line losses by line type, length and frequency, RF safety.

T9C01 (B)
What common connector usually joins RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF
transceiver?
A.  An F-type cable connector
B.  A PL-259 connector
C.  A banana plug connector
D.  A binding post connector

T9C02 (A)
What common connector usually joins a hand-held transceiver to
its antenna?
A.  A BNC connector
B.  A PL-259 connector
C.  An F-type cable connector
D.  A binding post connector

T9C03 (B)
Which of these common connectors has the lowest loss at UHF?
A.  An F-type cable connector
B.  A type-N connector
C.  A BNC connector
D.  A PL-259 connector

T9C04 (A)
If you install a 6-meter Yagi antenna on a tower 150 feet from
your transmitter, which of the following feed lines is best?
A.  RG-213
B.  RG-58
C.  RG-59
D.  RG-174

T9C05 (C)
If you have a transmitter and an antenna which are 50 feet apart,
but are connected by 200 feet of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should
be done to reduce feed line loss?
A.  Cut off the excess cable so the feed line is an even number
of wavelengths long
B.  Cut off the excess cable so the feed line is an odd number of
wavelengths long
C.  Cut off the excess cable
D.  Roll the excess cable into a coil which is as small as
possible

T9C06 (B)
As the length of a feed line is changed, what happens to signal
loss?
A.  Signal loss is the same for any length of feed line
B.  Signal loss increases as length increases
C.  Signal loss decreases as length increases
D.  Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the
signal's wavelength

T9C07 (B)
As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal
loss in a feed line?
A.  Signal loss is the same for any frequency
B.  Signal loss increases with increasing frequency
C.  Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency
D.  Signal loss is the least when the signal's wavelength is the
same as the feed line's length

T9C08 (D)
If your antenna feed line gets hot when you are transmitting,
what might this mean?
A.  You should transmit using less power
B.  The conductors in the feed line are not insulated very well
C.  The feed line is too long
D.  The SWR may be too high, or the feed line loss may be high

T9C09 (D)
Why should you make sure that no one can touch an open-wire feed
line while you are transmitting with it?
A.  Because contact might cause a short circuit and damage the
transmitter
B.  Because contact might break the feed line
C.  Because contact might cause spurious emissions
D.  Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person

T9C10 (C)
For RF safety, what is the best thing to do with your
transmitting antennas?
A.  Use vertical polarization
B.  Use horizontal polarization
C.  Mount the antennas where no one can come near them
D.  Mount the antenna close to the ground

T9C11 (A)
Why should you regularly clean, tighten and re-solder all antenna
connectors?
A.  To help keep their resistance at a minimum
B.  To keep them looking nice
C.  To keep them from getting stuck in place
D.  To increase their capacitance